If “I” be an ideal of ring “R” then there always exists an epimorphism ∅,R→R/I with.

A. Ker∅={0}
B. Ker∅={2}
C. Ker∅=I
D. None
View Answer

C. Ker∅=I

0 0 votes
Question Rating
Subscribe
Notify of
0 Comments
Inline Feedbacks
View all comments
0
Would love your thoughts, please comment.x
()
x